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∫(πx−4x²)ln(1+tanx) dx, 0 to π/4 | JEE

JEE Maths question with a full step-by-step solution.

Question
∫0π/4(πx−4x2)ln⁡(1+tan⁡x) dx\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\pi/4}\big(\pi x-4x^{2}\big)\ln(1+\tan x)\,dx equals
Aπ3192\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{192}
Bπ3192ln⁡2\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{192}\ln 2correct
Cπ296\dfrac{\pi^{2}}{96}
Dπ296ln⁡2\dfrac{\pi^{2}}{96}\ln 2
Solution
Step 1: Write the polynomial factor in a symmetric form. Since πx−4x2=4x(π4−x)\pi x-4x^{2}=4x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right),
I=∫0π/44x(π4−x)ln⁡(1+tan⁡x) dx.I=\int_{0}^{\pi/4}4x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right)\ln(1+\tan x)\,dx.
Step 2: Apply the King's property ∫0af(x) dx=∫0af(a−x) dx\displaystyle\int_{0}^{a}f(x)\,dx=\int_{0}^{a}f(a-x)\,dx with a=π4a=\dfrac{\pi}{4}. The factor 4x(π4−x)4x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right) is symmetric under x↦π4−xx\mapsto\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x, while for the logarithm we use the classic identity
ln⁡ ⁣(1+tan⁡(π4−x))=ln⁡ ⁣(1+1−tan⁡x1+tan⁡x)=ln⁡ ⁣(21+tan⁡x)=ln⁡2−ln⁡(1+tan⁡x).\ln\!\big(1+\tan(\tfrac{\pi}{4}-x)\big)=\ln\!\left(1+\dfrac{1-\tan x}{1+\tan x}\right)=\ln\!\left(\dfrac{2}{1+\tan x}\right)=\ln 2-\ln(1+\tan x).
Hence
I=∫0π/44x(π4−x)[ln⁡2−ln⁡(1+tan⁡x)] dx=4ln⁡2∫0π/4x(π4−x)dx−I.I=\int_{0}^{\pi/4}4x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right)\big[\ln 2-\ln(1+\tan x)\big]\,dx=4\ln 2\int_{0}^{\pi/4}x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right)dx-I.
Step 3: Solve for II:
2I=4ln⁡2∫0π/4x(π4−x)dx ⇒ I=2ln⁡2∫0π/4(π4x−x2)dx.2I=4\ln 2\int_{0}^{\pi/4}x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right)dx\ \Rightarrow\ I=2\ln 2\int_{0}^{\pi/4}\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}x-x^{2}\right)dx.
Step 4: Evaluate the elementary integral:
∫0π/4(π4x−x2)dx=[π8x2−x33]0π/4=π8⋅π216−13⋅π364=π3128−π3192=π3384.\int_{0}^{\pi/4}\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}x-x^{2}\right)dx=\left[\dfrac{\pi}{8}x^{2}-\dfrac{x^{3}}{3}\right]_{0}^{\pi/4}=\dfrac{\pi}{8}\cdot\dfrac{\pi^{2}}{16}-\dfrac{1}{3}\cdot\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{64}=\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{128}-\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{192}=\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{384}.
Therefore
I=2ln⁡2⋅π3384=π3192ln⁡2.I=2\ln 2\cdot\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{384}=\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{192}\ln 2.
Correct answer: (2)
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