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∫(πx−4x²)ln(1+tanx) dx, 0 to π/4 | JEE

JEE Maths question with a full step-by-step solution.

Question
0π/4(πx4x2)ln(1+tanx)dx\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\pi/4}\big(\pi x-4x^{2}\big)\ln(1+\tan x)\,dx equals
Aπ3192\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{192}
Bπ3192ln2\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{192}\ln 2correct
Cπ296\dfrac{\pi^{2}}{96}
Dπ296ln2\dfrac{\pi^{2}}{96}\ln 2
Solution
Step 1: Write the polynomial factor in a symmetric form. Since πx4x2=4x(π4x)\pi x-4x^{2}=4x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right),
I=0π/44x(π4x)ln(1+tanx)dx.I=\int_{0}^{\pi/4}4x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right)\ln(1+\tan x)\,dx.
Step 2: Apply the King's property 0af(x)dx=0af(ax)dx\displaystyle\int_{0}^{a}f(x)\,dx=\int_{0}^{a}f(a-x)\,dx with a=π4a=\dfrac{\pi}{4}. The factor 4x(π4x)4x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right) is symmetric under xπ4xx\mapsto\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x, while for the logarithm we use the classic identity
ln ⁣(1+tan(π4x))=ln ⁣(1+1tanx1+tanx)=ln ⁣(21+tanx)=ln2ln(1+tanx).\ln\!\big(1+\tan(\tfrac{\pi}{4}-x)\big)=\ln\!\left(1+\dfrac{1-\tan x}{1+\tan x}\right)=\ln\!\left(\dfrac{2}{1+\tan x}\right)=\ln 2-\ln(1+\tan x).
Hence
I=0π/44x(π4x)[ln2ln(1+tanx)]dx=4ln20π/4x(π4x)dxI.I=\int_{0}^{\pi/4}4x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right)\big[\ln 2-\ln(1+\tan x)\big]\,dx=4\ln 2\int_{0}^{\pi/4}x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right)dx-I.
Step 3: Solve for II:
2I=4ln20π/4x(π4x)dx  I=2ln20π/4(π4xx2)dx.2I=4\ln 2\int_{0}^{\pi/4}x\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}-x\right)dx\ \Rightarrow\ I=2\ln 2\int_{0}^{\pi/4}\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}x-x^{2}\right)dx.
Step 4: Evaluate the elementary integral:
0π/4(π4xx2)dx=[π8x2x33]0π/4=π8π21613π364=π3128π3192=π3384.\int_{0}^{\pi/4}\left(\dfrac{\pi}{4}x-x^{2}\right)dx=\left[\dfrac{\pi}{8}x^{2}-\dfrac{x^{3}}{3}\right]_{0}^{\pi/4}=\dfrac{\pi}{8}\cdot\dfrac{\pi^{2}}{16}-\dfrac{1}{3}\cdot\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{64}=\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{128}-\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{192}=\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{384}.
Therefore
I=2ln2π3384=π3192ln2.I=2\ln 2\cdot\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{384}=\dfrac{\pi^{3}}{192}\ln 2.
Correct answer: (2)
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