Definite IntegrationmediumFree
∫(πx−4x²)ln(1+tanx) dx, 0 to π/4 | JEE
JEE Maths question with a full step-by-step solution.
equals
A
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Step 1: Write the polynomial factor in a symmetric form. Since ,
Step 2: Apply the King's property with . The factor is symmetric under , while for the logarithm we use the classic identity
Hence
Step 3: Solve for :
Step 4: Evaluate the elementary integral:
Therefore
Correct answer: (2)
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