Indefinite IntegrationeasyFree

f(π/2) when f'(x)=1/(1+cosx), f(0)=3 | JEE

JEE Maths question with a full step-by-step solution.

Question
Let ff be continuous with f(x)=11+cosxf'(x)=\dfrac{1}{1+\cos x} and f(0)=3f(0)=3. Then f ⁣(π2)f\!\left(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\right) equals
A134\dfrac{13}{4}
B22
C44correct
DNone of these
Solution
Step 1: Integrate f(x)f'(x). Multiply numerator and denominator by (1cosx)(1-\cos x):
11+cosx=1cosx(1+cosx)(1cosx)=1cosx1cos2x=1cosxsin2x\dfrac{1}{1+\cos x}=\dfrac{1-\cos x}{(1+\cos x)(1-\cos x)}=\dfrac{1-\cos x}{1-\cos^{2}x}=\dfrac{1-\cos x}{\sin^{2}x}
Step 2: Split:
1cosxsin2x=1sin2xcosxsin2x=csc2xcscxcotx\dfrac{1-\cos x}{\sin^{2}x}=\dfrac{1}{\sin^{2}x}-\dfrac{\cos x}{\sin^{2}x}=\csc^{2}x-\csc x\cot x
Step 3: Integrate:
f(x)=(csc2xcscxcotx)dx=cotx+cscx+C=1cosxsinx+C=tanx2+Cf(x)=\int(\csc^{2}x-\csc x\cot x)\,dx=-\cot x+\csc x+C=\dfrac{1-\cos x}{\sin x}+C=\tan\dfrac{x}{2}+C
Step 4: Apply f(0)=3f(0)=3: tan0+C=C=3\tan 0+C=C=3. Step 5: Evaluate at x=π2x=\dfrac{\pi}{2}:
f ⁣(π2)=tanπ4+3=1+3=4f\!\left(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\right)=\tan\dfrac{\pi}{4}+3=1+3=4
Correct answer: (3)
Still stuck on this question?Ask your doubt on WhatsApp
Similar questions

Solve more, learn faster

Sign up free to solve more JEE Maths questions and explore doMath — timed drills, mastery sprints, bookmarks, and chapter-wise progress tracking.